1 Jul
2016
1 Jul
'16
2:12 p.m.
On Jun 30, "Ronald F. Guilmette" <rfg@tristatelogic.com> wrote:
And conversely, why did RIPE, and/or any of its LIRs, deem it appropriate to grant one of RIPE's limited supply of AS numbers to a self-identified *Belizian* company, particularly when this was the company's first, last, and *only* AS number? Because, as you pointed out, they have a network presence in the RIPE region.
Wouldn't a LACNIC-issued AS number have done just as well? If not, why not? I am not familiar with LACNIC policies.
-- ciao, Marco