On Sat, 27 Aug 2016 16:16:09 +0200
If a computer was infected for sending spam or malicious files, it was stolen. After all we are talking about Internet, right? Are you talking about what? Home invasion? Theft of objects? Just read what you, yourself are typing above: "If a computer was infected" - this means that: Someone or something did something Someone or Something (or a program or whatever) DID infect So, the definition of Internet Abuse, As I have stated it - Works
"Marilson" <marilson.mapa@gmail.com> wrote: perfectly fine. Maybe If you read the definition again, it can help you?
"The non sanctioned use of a resource to infringe upon the usage rights of another resource"
This means: Someone (or something) USED you resource (Your PC) to send spam or do something or use it for...
Just in case someone technical now wants to tell me that a "pc" is not an Internet Resource, PLEASE note: I am simply making it VERY simple so that Marilson can understand it also... In the example - the internet resource would of course NOT be Marilson's PC - BUT his PC's resource (IP number, etc) or the resource that Marilson's PC uses, on the Internet, - to abuse ANOTHER resource... Just to be technically clear :) And then, there is still no real world example of a single resource abuse. So, I guess that means that the definition still holds up... Andre
See?
- If someone steals your PC or breaks into your home to steal your pc It is NOT Internet Abuse...
If they break in and USE your PC to send spam - Then of course it is Internet Abuse - and the definition holds up.
BUT
You are changing the point... You were siding with Gunther, and what Gunther said was:
a Single resource can do Internet Abuse...
You are involving multiple resources and then claiming that it addresses the first problem...
Not cool, so either you are arguing for the simple sake of arguing or you do not understand the problem.
Which is it?
Andre